Directions
Read the following passages and answer the item
that follows each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the
passage only.
Passage – 1
The biggest house of cards, the longest
tongue, and of course, the tallest man: these are among the thousands of
records logged in the famous Guinness Book of Records. Created in
1955 after a debate concerning Europe's fastest game bird, what began as a marketing
tool sold to pub landlords to promote Guinness, an Irish drink, became the
bestselling copyright title of all time. In time, the book would sell 120
million copies in over 100 countries.
In its early years, the book set its
sights on satisfying man's innate curiosity about the natural world around him.
Its two principal fact finders, twins Norris and Ross McWhirter, scoured the
globe to collect empirical facts. It was their task to find and document
aspects of life that can be sensed or observed, things that can be quantified
or measured. They were only interested in superlatives: the biggest and the
best. It was during this period that some of the hallmark Guinness Records were
documented, answering such questions as "What is the brightest star?"
and "What is the biggest spider?"
Once aware of the public's thirst for
such knowledge, the book's authors began to branch out to cover increasingly
obscure, little-known facts. They started documenting human achievements as
well. A forerunner for reality television, the Guinness Book gave people a
chance to become famous for accomplishing eccentric, often pointless tasks.
Records were set in 1955 for consuming 24 raw eggs in 14 minutes and in 1981
for the fastest solving of a Rubik's Cube (which took a mere 38 seconds).
In its latest incarnation, the book has
found a new home on the internet. The Guinness World Records website
contains seemingly innumerable facts concerning such topics as the most
powerful combustion engine, or the world's longest train. What is striking,
however, is that such facts are found sharing a page with the record of the
heaviest train to be pulled with a beard. While there is no denying that each
of these facts has its own, individual allure, the latter represents a
significant deviation from the education-oriented facts of earlier editions.
Originating as a simple bar book,
the Guinness Book of Records has evolved over decades to
provide insight into the full spectrum of modern life. And although one may be
more likely now to learn about the widest human mouth than the highest number
of casualties in a single battle of the Civil War, the Guinness World
Records website offers a telling glimpse into the future of
fact-finding and record-recording.
1. According to the author, the most
significant difference between older editions of the Guinness Book of
Records and the new Guinness World Records website
involves
A. an end to the use of facts as a
means to promote Guinness
B. an overall increase in the total
number of facts presented
C. a move from fact-finding to the
recording of achievements
D. a shift in focus from educational to
entertaining material
2. Based on the contextual meaning, which
of the following best describes something that is superlative?
A. Students give presentations
about their favorite subjects for a grade. Amy Newhouse receives an 87% for her
presentation, while Dustin Lincoln receives a 92%.
B. Although sharks are significantly bigger and have razor-sharp teeth, dolphins are smarter and can therefore successfully evade attack.
C. A man built an enormous house of
cards. It took him 44 days and 218,792 individual playing cards to complete.
D. Ichiro likes tennis and practices
every day. In his last tournament, he placed 3rd of over 350 competitors,
winning the bronze trophy.
3. Using the passage as a guide, it can be
inferred that the author most likely believes reality television to be
A. corrupt B. absurd C.
idiotic D. invaluable
Passage – 2
Diamonds, an occasional component of rare
igneous rocks called lamporites and kimberlites, have never been dated
satisfactorily. However, some diamonds contain minute inclusions of silicate
minerals, commonly olivine, pyroxene and garnet. These minerals can be dated by
radioactive decay techniques because of the very small quantities of
radioactive trace elements they, in turn, contain. Usually, it is possible to
conclude that the inclusions are older than their diamond hosts, but with
little indication of the time interval involved. Sometimes, however, the
crystal form of the silicate inclusions is observed to resemble more closely
the internal structure of diamond than that of other silicate minerals. It is
not known how rare this resemblance is, or whether it is most often seen in
inclusions of silicates such as garnet, whose crystallography is generally
somewhat similar to that of diamond; but when present, the resemblance is
regarded as compelling evidence that the diamonds and inclusions are truly
cogenetic.
4. The author implies that silicate
inclusions were most often formed
A. with small diamonds inside of them
B. with trace elements derived from their
host minerals
C. by the radioactive decay of rare
igneous rocks
D. at an earlier period than were their
host minerals
5. According to the passage, the age of
silicate minerals included in diamonds can be determined due to a feature of
the
A. trace elements in the diamond hosts
B. trace elements in the rock surrounding
the diamonds
C. trace elements in the silicate
minerals
D. silicate minerals’ crystal structure
6. The author states that which of the
following generally has a crystal structure similar to that of diamond?
A. Lamproite B. Kimberlite C.
Garnet D. Olivine
7. The main purpose of the passage is
A. explain why it has not been possible
to determine the age of diamonds
B. explain how it might be possible to
date some diamonds
C. compare two alternative approaches to
determining the age of diamonds
D. compare a method of dating diamonds
with a method used to date certain silicate minerals
8. A, B,
C and D are standing on the four corners of a square field as shown in
the
figure. From the
positions shown in the figure, A walks to North position and B walks to the East position
while C decides to walk two sides in anticlockwise direction. B walks
to North and then changes his mind to take the previous position.
Identify the
choice with correct positions.
(a) A & B
occupy the same position.
(b) C & D
occupy the same position.
(c) D & B
are in their original positions.
(d) B & C
are diagonally opposite positions.
9.
In this question insert the missing number at the sign of interrogation.
8
|
4
|
9
|
5
|
5
|
7
|
3
|
4
|
3
|
4
|
5
|
8
|
39
|
44
|
60
|
?
|
(a) 62 (b) 72 (c)
60 (d) 70
Instructions for
questions
10- 11:
Answer the
following questions based on the
information given below.
I. There is a rectangular wooden block of length 4 cm, height 3
cm
and breadth 3 cm.
II. The two opposite surfaces of 4 cm × 3 cm are painted yellow on the outside.
III. The other two opposite surfaces of 4 cm × 3 cm
are
painted
red on the outside.
IV. The remaining two surfaces of 3 cm × 3 cm are
painted green on the outside.
V. Now, the block is cut in such a way that cubes of 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm are created.
10.How many cubes will have only one colour?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 18
11. How many cubes will have
no
colour?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8
12.How many cubes will have any two colours?
(a) 34 (b) 24
(c) 16 (d) 12
13. In
the following
question
two statements
are followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. Assume the two statements are true even if
they
are
at
variance with
commonly known facts. Then pick
the correct answer from
the
choices given below.
A.
Only conclusion I follows
B.
Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I & II follow
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Statements: Some doctors
are
fools.
Joshi
is
a
doctor.
Conclusions: I. Joshi is a fool. II. Some fools are doctors.
(a) A (b) B (c)
C (d) D
14.
Abdul, Mala and Chetan went bird watching. Each
of them saw one bird that none of the others did. Each pair saw one bird that the third did not. And
one
bird was seen by all three. Of the birds Abdul saw, two
were yellow.
Of
the birds Mala
saw, three were yellow. Of the birds Chetan saw, four
were yellow. How many yellow birds were seen
in all? How many non-yellow birds were seen in
all?
(a)
7 yellow birds and 3 non yellow
birds
(b)
5 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds
(c)
4 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds
(d)
3 yellow birds and 2 non yellow birds
15. Instructions for question
A series of figures has been shown on the left. Find the figure
in the place of ? from the figures on the right.
Directions
for
questions 16 – 17
E-1, E-2 and E-3 are three engineering students writing their assignments at night. Each of them starts at a different time and completes at a different time. The digit in their name and the order of their starting and completing the assignment is certainly not the same. The last student to start is the first to complete the Assignment
|
16. Who is the first student
to start writing the assignment?
(a) E-1 (b) E-2
(c)
E-3 (d) Cannot be decided
17. Who is the last
student to complete
the
assignment?
(a) E-1 (b) E-2
(c)
E-3 (d) Cannot be decided
Passage – 3
The Amazon is the world's largest
tropical rainforest. It covers an area of nearly 2.8 million square miles,
which is nearly the size of the continent of Australia. The Amazon Rainforest
gets its life from the majestic Amazon River, the world's second largest river,
which runs directly through the heart of the region. The vast forest itself
consists of four layers, each featuring its own ecosystems and specially
adapted plants and animals.
The forest floor is the lowest
region. Since only two percent of the sunlight filters through the top layers
to the understory, very few plants grow here. The forest floor, however, is
rich with rotting vegetation and the bodies of dead organisms, which are
quickly broken down into nutrients integrated into the soil. Tree roots stay
close to these available nutrients and decomposers such as millipedes and
earthworms use these nutrients for food.
The understory is the layer above
the forest floor. Much like the forest floor, only about 2- 5 percent of the
sunlight reaches this shadowy realm. Many of the plants in the understory have
large, broad leaves to collect as much sunlight as possible. The understory is
so thick that there is very little air movement. As a result, plants rely on
insects and animals to pollinate their flowers.
The layer above the understory is
the canopy. This is where much of the action in the rainforest occurs. Many
canopy leaves have specially adapted leaves which form "drip tips".
Drip tips allow water to flow off the leaves which prevents mosses, fungi, and
lichens from occupying the leaves. Leaves in the canopy are very dense and
filter about 80 percent of the sunlight. The canopy is where the wealth of the
rainforest's fruits and flowers grow.
The emergent layer is above the
canopy, and is the top layer of the rainforest. Trees in the emergent layer
break through the canopy and may reach heights of 200 feet. Leaves in the
emergent layer are small and covered with a special wax to hold water. Trees
which rise to the emergent layer are massive. Many are braced by huge buttress
roots. Many animals that survive in the emergent layer never touch the ground.
18. Which question is answered in the introductory paragraph?
A. What kind of animals live in the Amazon Rainforest?
B. What is the world's largest river?
C. How many layers exist in the Amazon
Rainforest?
D.
Where does the Amazon River begin?
19. Based on the information given, which of
the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most of the action in the rainforest
occurs in the lower layers
B. Plants in the upper layers must rely
on insects and animals to pollinate their flowers
C. Leaves in the lower layers of the
rainforest must have larger leaves.
D. Decomposers are usually found in the
upper layers of the rainforest
20. Why do few plants grow in the
understory?
A.
There is not enough water. B. Their leaves are too large.
C. There is not enough nutrients. D. None of these
21. Which of the following is NOT true?
A.
The Understory is below the Canopy.
B. Leaves in the canopy are very dense
and filter a high percentage of sunlight.
C. The Canopy is higher than the Emergent
Layer.
D. The Amazon Rainforest is located in
South America.
22. Which of the following aspect is given
emphasis in the final paragraph?
A. The types of animals
B. The types of trees and leaves
C.
The size of the animals
D. The size of the trees and leaves
Passage – 4
Caffeine, the stimulant in coffee, has
been called "the most widely used psychoactive substance on Earth."
Snyder, Daly and Bruns have recently proposed that caffeine affect behavior by
countering the activity in the human brain of a naturally occurring chemical
called adenosine. Adenosine normally depresses neuron firing in many areas of
the brain. Snyder propose that caffeine, which is structurally similar to
adenosine, prevents adenosine from attaching there and allows the neurons to
fire more readily than they otherwise would.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by preventing adenosine binding, Snyder compared the stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in the brains of mice. "In general," they reported, "the ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomotion." Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding and stimulation. The problem is that the compound has mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.
To buttress their case that caffeine acts instead by preventing adenosine binding, Snyder compared the stimulatory effects of a series of caffeine derivatives with their ability to dislodge adenosine from its receptors in the brains of mice. "In general," they reported, "the ability of the compounds to compete at the receptors correlates with their ability to stimulate locomotion in the mouse; i.e., the higher their capacity to bind at the receptors, the higher their ability to stimulate locomotion." Theophylline, a close structural relative of caffeine and the major stimulant in tea, was one of the most effective compounds in both regards.
There were some apparent exceptions to the general correlation observed between adenosine-receptor binding and stimulation. The problem is that the compound has mixed effects in the brain, a not unusual occurrence with psychoactive drugs. Even caffeine, which is generally known only for its stimulatory effects, displays this property, depressing mouse locomotion at very low concentrations and stimulating it at higher ones.
23. Why do / does the author mention
Theophylline?
I. To examine its structural formation
II. To compare its effects with that of
Caffeine
III. To prove that Theophylline is not so
good as Caffeine
A. I only B.
II only C. I & II D. II & III
24. Which of the following is the author’s
opinion on the effects of Caffeine?
A. Theophylline is the best stimulator
B. Caffeine brings down the rate of
neuron firing in the brain
C. Caffeine allows the neurons to fire
readily
D. Caffeine seems to lack absolute
stimulatory effects
25. What does the experiment done on mice
reveal?
A. Caffeine stimulates better than
Theophylline
B. Caffeine failed to bind adenosine
binding
C. Caffeine is structurally similar to
Adenosine
D. The stimulatory effect is directly
proportional to the quantity of the stimulant
26. All good athletes who want to win are disciplined and
have a well balanced diet. Therefore, athletes who do not have well balanced
diets are bad athletes. Based on the
sentence above which
of the statement below strongly
supports the view:
(a) No
bad athlete wants to win.
(b) No
athlete who does not eat a well balanced diet is good athlete.
(c)
Every athlete who eats a well balanced diet is good athlete.
(d)
All athletes who
want to win
are good athletes.
27. There are 6 volumes of books on a rack kept in order
(such as, vol.
1, vol.
2 and so on).
After some readers used them, their order got
disturbed. The changes showed as follows:
Vol.5 was directly to the right of vol.2.
Vol.4 has vol.6 to its left and both were not at Vol.3’s place.
Vol.1 has Vol.3 on right and Vol.5 on left.
An even numbered volume is at Vol.5’s
place.
Find the order in which the books are kept now, from the 4 given alternatives:
(a) 6, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (b) 4, 6, 3, 5,
1, 2
(c) 3, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3 (d) 2, 5, 1, 3, 6, 4
28. All
German philosophers, except for
Marx, are
idealists. From which
of the following can the
statement above be most properly inferred?
(a)Except for
Marx,
if
someone is an
idealist philosopher, then he or she is German.
(b) Marx is the only non-German philosopher
who is an idealist.
(c) If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or she is not Marx.
(d) Marx is not an idealist German philosopher.
29. The numerator and denominator of a fraction is
in the ratio 2:3.
If 6 are subtracted
from the numerator the
value of the fraction becomes 2/3 of the original fraction. The
numerator of
the original
fraction is,
(a) 16 (b) 21 (c) 18 (d) 30
30. If for a
particular value of
the variable x,
the following holds good, 17 = 17x/(1 – x), then compute
the value of (3x)*x.
(a) None (b) 3/4 (c) 3/2 (d)
1/2
Directions
for
questions
31 and 32:
Amit was driving
in
New Town, where all roads either
north – south or east – west
forming a grid. Roads were
at
a distance of 1 km from each other in parallel.
31. Amit started at the intersection
of streets no. 7
and
8. He
drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could
bring him back to his starting
point?
I. 3 km east, then 2 km south II. 1 km north, then 3 km east III. 1 km north, then 2 km west
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) I and II only (d) II and III only
32. After driving as stated in question no. 49 above,
Amit
did not return to
his starting point, but instead drove
4 km east and 1 km north. How far is he
from his starting
point?
(a) 5 km (b) 4 km (c) 1 km (d) 7
km
33. You have three chests in front of you. The
first chest is labeled “GOLD”, the second is labeled “SILVER” and the third is
labeled “GOLD OR SILVER”. You have been told that all the labels are on the
wrong chests and that one chest contain gold coins, one contains silver coins
and one contains bronze coins. How many chests do you need to open to deduce
which label goes on which chest?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Cannot deduce
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Cannot deduce
34. The jars A to D are of equal radius. The
option which gives the
correct relationship among
capacity
of
jars is:
(a) A = B < C < D
(b) B = D > A <
C (c) B = D >
A > C (d) D > A = B >
C
Passage – 5
Many within the
administration are urging Washington to quickly and quietly wash its hands off
Afghanistan and move on. Not only would this be a strategic error, but it would
show blindness to one of the most important lessons of the last decade.
Let’s try a word association game. What comes to mind when you think Rwanda, Bosnia, Kosovo, East Timor, Mozambique and Uganda? For most people the answer is civil war, ethnic cleansing, failed states and intractable woes. And that’s what they represented the last time you looked at them. But a funny thing happened over the last five years. As the UN Development Chief, Mark Malloch Brown, puts it, these countries slowly have begun putting their houses in order. Today they are all peaceful, reasonably stable societies with the first stirrings of genuine economic activity. In some cases, it’s better than that. Mozambique, for example, is growing at nine per cent. Rwanda has a war-crimes tribunal. Kosovo is doing better than anyone could have expected. East Timor have seceded nonviolently from Indonesia and set up a liberal democratic regime in a few years.
Let’s try a word association game. What comes to mind when you think Rwanda, Bosnia, Kosovo, East Timor, Mozambique and Uganda? For most people the answer is civil war, ethnic cleansing, failed states and intractable woes. And that’s what they represented the last time you looked at them. But a funny thing happened over the last five years. As the UN Development Chief, Mark Malloch Brown, puts it, these countries slowly have begun putting their houses in order. Today they are all peaceful, reasonably stable societies with the first stirrings of genuine economic activity. In some cases, it’s better than that. Mozambique, for example, is growing at nine per cent. Rwanda has a war-crimes tribunal. Kosovo is doing better than anyone could have expected. East Timor have seceded nonviolently from Indonesia and set up a liberal democratic regime in a few years.
Despite mountains
of skeptics, the reality has been that over the last five years the
international community and the United Nations learned tough lessons from their
initial failures in dealing with peace-keeping and nation-building. Today the
major powers and the international agencies are pulling together and working
effectively. As a result, once hopeless situations are moving toward some
semblance of normalcy. Is it so crazy to think that may be Afghanistan can be
next on this list?
Of course the
situation in Afghanistan is gruesome. The country has been through invasion,
occupation and civil war for two decades. Economic activity has come to a
standstill, a condition worsened by periodic famine and drought. Even modest
achievements: rebuilding the roads, getting rural irrigation flowing, restoring
electricity- could have dramatic effects.
And there are many hopeful signs. The neighboring powers- Pakistan, Iran, Uzbekistan, Russia are not competing to destabilize the country, as they did in the past, but working to stabilize it. As Richard Haass, Washington’s top diplomat on Afghanistan put it: The Great Games has given way to the greater good. Perhaps, the generation of Afghans who thrived on the feuds of the civil war is being replaced by a younger wave of leaders who want to build a modern country. But first you need peace. The international community had learned one big lesson over the last decade: when a country is still plagued by problems of basic security, peacekeeping and reconstruction are impossible. The other important lesson is that the United Nations cannot provide this security. It must come from the major powers.
Thus, the most urgent priority in Afghanistan is a strong, multinational force that will bring security and stability to Kabul. Beyond Kabul, security must come from agreements between the Afghan war lords. It will be a test of their desire for peace and security in their regions.
Afghanistan is the most ambitious project that the international community will have ever undertaken. And as a senior American official said, the one thing that seems to unite Afghans over long period of time is they don’t much like foreigners. But consider what the foreigners were up to in the past. The British and the Russians tried to colonize the place. The Arabs turned it into a base for international terrorism. Maybe now that the foreigners are coming for quite different reasons, the locals will be more welcoming it.
And there are many hopeful signs. The neighboring powers- Pakistan, Iran, Uzbekistan, Russia are not competing to destabilize the country, as they did in the past, but working to stabilize it. As Richard Haass, Washington’s top diplomat on Afghanistan put it: The Great Games has given way to the greater good. Perhaps, the generation of Afghans who thrived on the feuds of the civil war is being replaced by a younger wave of leaders who want to build a modern country. But first you need peace. The international community had learned one big lesson over the last decade: when a country is still plagued by problems of basic security, peacekeeping and reconstruction are impossible. The other important lesson is that the United Nations cannot provide this security. It must come from the major powers.
Thus, the most urgent priority in Afghanistan is a strong, multinational force that will bring security and stability to Kabul. Beyond Kabul, security must come from agreements between the Afghan war lords. It will be a test of their desire for peace and security in their regions.
Afghanistan is the most ambitious project that the international community will have ever undertaken. And as a senior American official said, the one thing that seems to unite Afghans over long period of time is they don’t much like foreigners. But consider what the foreigners were up to in the past. The British and the Russians tried to colonize the place. The Arabs turned it into a base for international terrorism. Maybe now that the foreigners are coming for quite different reasons, the locals will be more welcoming it.
35.
According to the writer, the pre requisite for any development in Afghanistan
is
(A)elimination of tribal leaders.
(B)cooperation of the neighboring countries.
(C)ensuring peace and security.
(D)sending British troops before American troops.
36. Peace and security in Afghanistan can be achieved through
(I) agreements with tribal leaders.
(II) cooperation of the neighboring countries.
(III) sending unilateral forces to Afghanistan.
(A)II only (B)I and II(C)II and III(D)All of the above.
37. Optimism about Afghanistan can be derived from following factors:-
(I) Neighboring countries are not trying to destabilize Afghanistan.
(II) New generation of leaders.
(III) Comparatively peaceful environment.
(A) I and II only. (B) I and III only.
(A)elimination of tribal leaders.
(B)cooperation of the neighboring countries.
(C)ensuring peace and security.
(D)sending British troops before American troops.
36. Peace and security in Afghanistan can be achieved through
(I) agreements with tribal leaders.
(II) cooperation of the neighboring countries.
(III) sending unilateral forces to Afghanistan.
(A)II only (B)I and II(C)II and III(D)All of the above.
37. Optimism about Afghanistan can be derived from following factors:-
(I) Neighboring countries are not trying to destabilize Afghanistan.
(II) New generation of leaders.
(III) Comparatively peaceful environment.
(A) I and II only. (B) I and III only.
(C) II and III
only. (D) All of the above.
38.One of the important lessons learnt by the
international community in peace keeping missions and nation building is
(A)coordination between major powers and international agencies.
(B)controlling local warlords.
(C)economic development, for example, as in the case of Mozambique.
(D)infrastructural development.
39. A pitiable description of Afghanistan has been made by the writer consequent to civil war, famine, invasion, occupation etc. However, the writer claims that this situation can be exploited for betterment as
(A)civil wars have left the local warlords at their weakest levels.
(B) it provides an opportunity for international forces to easily enter Afghanistan and eliminate terrorist hideouts.
(C)even humble infrastructural developments can bring fruitful results.
(D)UN gets an opportunity to demonstrate its capabilities and emerge as a stronger organization which could ultimately result in world peace.
(A)coordination between major powers and international agencies.
(B)controlling local warlords.
(C)economic development, for example, as in the case of Mozambique.
(D)infrastructural development.
39. A pitiable description of Afghanistan has been made by the writer consequent to civil war, famine, invasion, occupation etc. However, the writer claims that this situation can be exploited for betterment as
(A)civil wars have left the local warlords at their weakest levels.
(B) it provides an opportunity for international forces to easily enter Afghanistan and eliminate terrorist hideouts.
(C)even humble infrastructural developments can bring fruitful results.
(D)UN gets an opportunity to demonstrate its capabilities and emerge as a stronger organization which could ultimately result in world peace.
Passage – 6:
That large animals require luxuriant
vegetation, has been a general assumption which has passed from one work to
another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it
has destroyed the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in
the ancient history of the world. The prejudice has probably been derived from
India, and the Indian islands, where troops of elephants, noble forests, and
impenetrable jungles, are associated together in every one's mind. If, however,
we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall
find allusions in almost every page either to the desert character of the
country, or to the numbers of large animals inhabiting it.
Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately
succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs that, taking into
consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt
of its being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine
forests, but with these exceptions, the traveller may pass for days together
through open plains, covered by poor and scanty vegetation. Now, if we look to
the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers
extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense.
The elephants, the rhinoceros, the hippopotamus, the giraffe, zebras,
and several antelopes inhabit those areas.
According to Dr. Smith, in one day's
march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any great distance
on either side, one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the same day he saw
several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred. At the
distance of a little more than one hour's march from their place of encampment
on the previous night, his party spotted eight hippopotamuses, and saw many
more. In this same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a
case quite extraordinary, to see so many great animals crowded together, but it
evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers. Dr. Smith describes the
country passed through that day, as 'being thinly covered with grass, and
bushes about four feet high, and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.'
Thus,
it is truly surprising how such a number of animals can find support in a
country producing so little food. The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide
tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly consists of undergrowth, which
probably contains more nutrients in a small bulk. Dr. Smith also informs that
the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place
is supplied by a fresh stock.
There can be no doubt, however, that our
ideas respecting the apparent amount of food necessary for the support of large
quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that where large quadrupeds exist,
the vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is far from true. After the above
facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability, that among the mammalia there exists no close
relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the vegetation,
in the countries which they inhabit.
40. Which of the following conveys the key
message of the passage?
A.
A discussion on the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of
vegetation in their habitats
B.
A comparison of ecological conditions in India and Africa
C.
A review on the faulty reasoning of some geologists
D.
A description on the size of animals in various parts of the world
41. According to the author, the ‘prejudice’
has led to
A.
confusion in natural history
B.
false ideas about animals in Africa
C.
incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists
D.
doubt in the mind of the author
42. The author uses information provided by
Dr. Smith to
I. supply information on quality and
quantity of plant life in South Africa
II. indicate the presence of large
numbers of animals
III. give evidence of numbers of
carnivorous animals
A.
I only B. II only C. III only D.
All the three
43. To account for the ‘surprising’ number
of animals in a ‘country producing so little food’, the author suggests all of
the following as partial explanations except
A.
food which is a concentrated source of nutrients
B.
rapid regrowth of plant material
C.
large area for animals to forage in
D. mainly carnivorous animals
44. The author makes his point by reference
to all of the following except
A.
travel books B. published illustrations
C.
private communications
D.
historical documents
Instructions for questions 45 -48:
Answer the
following questions based on the information given
below.
The
regular mathematics faculty could not teach
because of being sick. As a stop
gap arrangement,
different visiting faculty taught different topics on
4 different days in a week. The scheduled time for class
was 7:00 am with maximum permissible delay of 20 minutes. The monsoon made the city bus schedules erratic and therefore the classes started on different
times on different days.
Mr. Singh didn’t teach on Thursday.
Calculus was taught in the class that
started at 7:20
am.
Mr. Chatterjee took
the
class on Wednesday, but he didn’t
teach
probability.
The class on Monday started at 7:00
am, but
Mr. Singh
didn’t
teach it. Mr.
Dutta didn’t
teach ratio and proportion. Mr.
Banerjee, who
didn’t teach set theory, taught a class that started five minutes later than the class featuring the
teacher who taught probability.
The teacher in
Friday’s class taught set theory. Wednesday’s class didn’t start at 7:10 am. No two classes started at the same time.
45. The class on Wednesday started at:
(a) 7:05 am and topic was ratio
and proportion.
(b) 7:20 am and topic was calculus.
(c) 7:00 am and topic was calculus.
(d) 7:30 am and topic was calculus.
46. The option which gives the correct teacher- subject combination is:
(a) Mr. Chatterjee – ratio and
proportion
(b) Mr. Banerjee – calculus
(c) Mr. Chatterjee – set theory
(d) Mr. Singh – set
theory
47. Probability
was taught by:
(a) Mr. Dutta on Monday
(b) Mr. Dutta on Thursday
(c) Mr. Singh on Wednesday
(d) Mr. Singh on Monday
48. The option which gives a possible correct class time – week day combination is:
(a) Wednesday – 7:10 am, Thursday – 7:20 am, Friday
– 7:05 am
(b) Wednesday – 7:20 am, Thursday – 7:15 am, Friday
– 7:20 am
(c) Wednesday – 7:05 am, Thursday – 7:20 am, Friday – 7:10 am
(d) Wednesday – 7:20 am, Thursday – 7:05 am,
Friday – 7:10 am
Directions
49- 53
Study the following information and answer the
following questions.
It is very easy to remember the ID
number of my ATM card which is nine digit number and every digit is distinct.
If I tell you some clues then you will also be able to remember my ATM card ID
number. Let us say the number PQRSTUVWX and digit correspondding to it are 1 to
9 though not respectively. The ID is divisible by 9.
If you dalete the digit at its units
place, the remaining 8- digit number of my ID is divisible by 8. If you again
delete the last digit of 8- digit number the remaining 7 – digit number is
divisible by 7 and the process goes on.
49. What is the sum of the digits of the
ID number of my ATM card?
(a) 55 (b) 45 (c) 90 (d) None of these
50. What is the number represented by
the letter R?
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c)
1 (d) Cannot be determined
51. The number 2 represents which
letter?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) None of these
52. What are the first 5 digits of the
ID number of my ATM card?
(a) 38456 (b) 36185 (c)
38965 (d) 38165
53. What are the first 5 digits of the
ID number of my ATM card?
(a) 54712 (b) 53729 (c) 52749 (d)
54729
Passage – 7:
On January 3, 1961, nine days after
Christmas, Richard Legg, John Byrnes, and Richard McKinley were killed in a
remote desert in eastern Idaho. Their deaths occurred when a nuclear reactor
exploded at a top-secret base in the National Reactor Testing Station (NRTS).
Official reports state that the explosion and subsequent reactor meltdown
resulted from the improper retraction of the control rod. When questioned about
the events that occurred there, officials were very reticent. The whole affair,
in fact, was not discussed much, and seemed to disappear with time. In order to
grasp the mysterious nature of the NRTS catastrophe, it helps to know a bit
about how nuclear reactors work. After all, the generation of nuclear energy
may strike many as an esoteric process.
However, given its relative simplicity,
the way in which the NRTS reactor functions is widely comprehensible. In this
particular kind of reactor, a cluster of nine -ton uranium fuel rods are
positioned lengthwise around a central control rod. The reaction begins with
the slow removal of the control rod, which starts a controlled nuclear reaction
and begins to heat the water in the reactor. This heat generates steam, which
builds pressure inside the tank. As pressure builds, the steam looks for a place
to escape. The only place this steam is able to escape is through the turbine.
As it passes through the turbine on its way out of the tank, it turns the giant
fan blades and produces energy.
On
the morning of January 3, after the machine had been shut down for the
holidays, the three men arrived at the station to restart the reactor. The
control rod needed to be pulled out only four inches to be reconnected to the
automated driver. However, records indicate that Byrnes yanked it out 23
inches, over five times the distance necessary. In milliseconds the reactor
exploded. Legg was impaled on the ceiling; he would be discovered last. It took
one week and a lead-shielded crane to remove his body. Even in full protective
gear, workers were only able to work a minute at a time. The three men are
buried in lead -lined coffins under concrete in New York, Michigan, and
Arlington Cemetery, Virginia.
The investigation took nearly two years
to complete. Did Byrnes have a dark motive? Or was it simply an accident? Did he
know how precarious the procedure was? Other operators were questioned as to
whether they knew the consequences of pulling the control rod out so far. They
responded, “Of course! We often talked about what we would do if we were at a
radar station and the Russians came. We’d yank it out.” Official reports are
oddly ambiguous, but what they do not explain, gossip does. Rumors had it that
there was tension between the men because Byrnes suspected the other two of
being involved with his young wife. There is little doubt that he, like the
other operators, knew exactly what would happen when he yanked the control rod.
54. According to the passage, which of the
following is directly responsible for energy production?
A. the turning of the turbine blades
B. the escape of pressurized steam
C. the removal of the control rod
D. the positioning of the uranium fuel
rods
55. Based on information in the passage, it
can be inferred that, after the explosion and subsequent meltdown, the reactor
was
A. not mentioned in any official
documents about the incident
B. contaminated with toxic elements
C. completely annihilated
D. honored as a memorial to the tragic
incident
56. Which of the following literary
techniques does the author use in the passage?
I. hyperbole, characterized by the use of
exaggeration for effect
II. foreshadowing, characterized by the
use of hints that depict future events in the narrative or story
III. flashback, characterized by the
description of a scene set in a time earlier than the main story
A.I only B.
I and II only
C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
57. Based on information in the final
paragraph, which of the following statements would the author likely agree
with?
A. Official reports about the disaster
were detailed and conclusive.
B. Legg, Byrnes, and McKinley were best
friends.
C. Byrnes deliberately yanked the control
rod.
D. Rumors about the disaster are dubious
and uninteresting.
Passage – 8:
Washington D.C., March 4th, 1865—the
Inauguration Day of President re-elect Abraham Lincoln was cold and windy, just
as it had been four years earlier. But the U.S. capital building was now
complete; its great iron dome now in place, crowned by a bronze liberty. Just
before the president began to speak, the clouds parted, flooding the stands with
brilliant sunlight. Lincoln rose and gave his speech.
"I'm a tired man," Lincoln said
afterwards. "Sometimes I think I'm the tiredest [sic] man on earth."
In the crowd just a few yards from Lincoln was the young actor, John Wilkes
Booth. His vantage point on the balcony, Booth said afterwards, had offered an
excellent chance to kill the president, "If [he] had wished."John
Wilkes booth was a fervent believer in slavery and white supremacy. He
enthusiastically supported the confederate notion that African Americans were
unequal to whites and should remain slaves. But during the four years of war,
he had not been able to bring himself to actually fight for the southern cause.
"I have begun to deem myself a coward, and to despise my own existence,"
he wrote.
His mind fixed on Lincoln as the tyrant
responsible for all the country's troubles and his own. Booth hatched a scheme
to kidnap Lincoln, and he gathered a worshipful band of dubious conspirators
willing to help out. This included: Lewis Paine, a wounded confederate who had
recently sworn allegiance to the union; David E. Herold, a druggist clerk who
was thought by some to be intellectually challenged; George Atzerodt, a German
born wagon painter, barely able to make himself understood in English; and John
H. Surratt, a sometime confederate spy, whose widowed mother, Mary, kept a
Washington boarding house where Booth and his admirers sometimes met.
58. In paragraph 1, the author writes,
"Washington D.C., March 4th, 1865 —the Inauguration Day of President re-elect
Abraham Lincoln was cold and windy, just as it had been four years
earlier." Using this information, the reader can understand that
I. This was not Lincoln's first term as
president
II. It was cold and windy in Washington
D.C. on March 4th, 1861
III. Lincoln did not know that John
Wilkes Booth was in the crowd
A.I only B.I
and II only
C.II and III only D. I, II, and III
59.
In paragraph 2, the
author uses the term "[sic]." This is used to show the reader that a
word or phrase was used incorrectly by the speaker, but that the author still
wishes to preserve the speaker's actual language. In this case, the author
writes "[sic]" after the word "tiredest" to show that it is
used incorrectly (the correct form is "more tired"). Using this
information, which of the following quotations should the term
"[sic]" be applied to?
A. "Tommy bought a new bike down at
the new bicycle shop."
B. "Some plants require a great deal
of light in order to grow."
C. "No one knows this town like I
do."
D."The Easterners are generally
considered to be more friendly than Westerners."
60. Marco is a fervent believer in animal
rights. One day, Marco learns that the animals in a nearby zoo are being
mistreated. Which of the following sentences describes how Marco would most likely
react after learning this information?
A. Marco sighs and continues playing
video games.
B. Marco does internet research with the
hope of learning more.
C. Marco monitors updates on a local news
channel.
D. Marco joins a protest outside the zoo
entrance.
61. John Wilkes Booth can best be described
as
A. treacherous, meaning unfaithful or
disloyal
B. patriotic, meaning devoted to one's
country
C. amicable, meaning friendly or
agreeable
D. schemer, meaning clever in executing
secret plans
Passage -9:
Butterflies
are some of the most interesting insects on the planet Earth. There are more
than seventeen thousand different kinds of butterflies! Butterflies come in all
shapes and sizes.
Butterflies go through four main stages of life. The first stage is the egg stage followed by the larva stage. As a larva, or caterpillar, the future butterfly eats as much as possible. As it grows, it sheds it outer skin, or exoskeleton. This may happen four or five times. After a few weeks, the caterpillar enters the next stage of its life, the chrysalis stage. In the chrysalis, the caterpillar will liquefy into a soup of living cells. Then, it will reorganize into a butterfly and the metamorphosis is complete. In later parts of the chrysalis stage, you can see the forming butterfly through the chrysalis.
When the butterfly emerges from the chrysalis, it pumps its wings to send blood through them so that it can fly. Most butterflies only live a couple of weeks, just enough time to drink flower nectar and to mate. Some, like the Monarch Butterfly, however, may live many months.
Butterflies go through four main stages of life. The first stage is the egg stage followed by the larva stage. As a larva, or caterpillar, the future butterfly eats as much as possible. As it grows, it sheds it outer skin, or exoskeleton. This may happen four or five times. After a few weeks, the caterpillar enters the next stage of its life, the chrysalis stage. In the chrysalis, the caterpillar will liquefy into a soup of living cells. Then, it will reorganize into a butterfly and the metamorphosis is complete. In later parts of the chrysalis stage, you can see the forming butterfly through the chrysalis.
When the butterfly emerges from the chrysalis, it pumps its wings to send blood through them so that it can fly. Most butterflies only live a couple of weeks, just enough time to drink flower nectar and to mate. Some, like the Monarch Butterfly, however, may live many months.
62. In what stage does the metamorphosis
happen?
A.
chrysalis B. Egg C.
butterfly D. caterpillar
63. Why does the caterpillar shed its skin?
A. It is growing B.
It is hungry
C. To defend itself against predators
D. The butterfly is coming.
64. Which is true?
A. There are less than a thousand different kinds of butterflies in the
world.
B.
There is only one kind of butterfly in the world.
C. There are about a thousand different
kinds of butterflies in the world.
D. There are more than a thousand
different kinds of butterflies in the world.
Directions 65-67
In the network diagram above, the
figures represent the flow of the natural gas through pipelines between major
cities A,B,C, D & E (in suitable units). Assume that supply equals demand
in the network (although not on indivitual nodes)
65. What is the number of units demanded
at B?
(a) 175 (b) 200 (c) 225 (d) 250
66. If the number of units demanded in C
is 225, what is the value of X?
(a) 975 (b) 875 (c)
775 (d) 950
67. What is the number of units demanded
at D?
(a) 175 (b) 200 (c) 225 (d)
350
68. If PQRS is a square and QRT is an
equilateral triangle, find the measure of the angle RST. 
(a) 15° (b) 20° (c)
25° (d) 30°
69. The area of
an ellipse is twice that of circle. The major diameter of the ellipse is twice
that of the minor diameter. The radius of the circle is
(a) 50% of minor diameter of the
ellipse
(c) Minor diameter of the ellipse
(b) 50% of major diameter of the
ellipse
(d) Major diameter of the ellipse
70. There
are two identical red, two identical black and two identical white balls. In
how many different ways can the balls be placed in the cells (each cell to
contain one ball) shown above such that the balls of the same colour do not
occupy any two consecutive cells?
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 30
71. In 1930, a
person's age was 8 times that of his son. In 1938, the father's age became 10
times that of his son's age in 1930. The ages of the son & father in 1940
were, respectively
(a) 16 years, 58 years (b) 15 years, 50 years
(c) 14 years, 42 years (d) 13 years, 34 years
72. In the given figure ÐOQP =300 & ÐORP = 200, ÐQOR is equal to
(a) 1000 (c)
1300 (b) 1200 (d)
1400
Directions
for the following 8(eight) items:
Given below are eight
items. Each item describes a suituation and is followed by four possible
responses. Indicate response you find the most appropriate. Choose only one
response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness
for the given situation.
Please attempt all the
items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.
73. You are a professor in
a government medical college for the past 5 years. Your neighbour wants to
admit his daughter in your college and asks you for help. You understand that
her academic records are excellent and she is marginally lacking the required
cut-off. Yet, you tell him you cannot
interfere in the admission process. He then offers you a huge sum and tells you
to ‘try your best’.
You would…
A. Accept the money and
not do anything about the admissions.
B. Refuse the money and
firmly warn him against his action.
C. Rule out even the
least possibility of his daughter securing a seat as he has indulged in
bribery.
D. Tell all other
neighbours about it and boycott his family.
74. A reputed Medical
Officer was deputed by the central government to stop the spread of growing
bird flu epidemic in a neighbouring state. In the meanwhile, the deadly disease
is said to have started spreading in the MO’s own state and he has been under
pressure from his family and relatives to take up the task of attending his
immediate surroundings. What should be his immediate course of action?
A. He should take up the
assignment, work on it and then attend the problem of his state
B. He should suggest a
few other names to the central government to take up the assignment
C. He should ask his
family members to quit the place and ask them to be with him
D. He should attend to
his immediate environment, allays the fears and then take up the assignment
75. On the day of your
state’s Public Services Commission Exam, you receive a complaint that at a
particular exam centre, there has been insufficient number of computer systems.
You rush to the scene immediately and find that around 15 candidates were
unable to give their exams even though they reported 10 minutes earlier to the
venue. As a revenue department official deputed to supervise the conduct of
exams, which of the following solutions do you think is appropriate?
A. Investigate and come
out with the total list of candidates who faced the similar problem in all
other centers. You forward the list to the Chief with a strong recommendation
for the re-conduct of the exam
B. Talk to the affected
candidates convincingly and assure them your best to look for a solution
C. Explain the
candidates that the situation is beyond control. You sympathise with their
predicament and assure them that you will take steps to refund their exam fee
D. Reprimand the exam center-in-charge in the
presence of the candidates and take severe action for his gross negligence
76. You have taken charge
as the Election Officer for the upcoming co-operative elections in your state.
You are compelled by the ruling party activists to accept nominations only from
their party alone. A notorious gang, which committed many atrocities earlier,
has received a life threat to you and all your family members. How will you
face this challenge?
A. You always prefer
staying in comfort zone to facing grave risks. Hence you seek transfer to a
less violent zone
B. You issue a
notification to the party high command and warn them of losing their chance to
contest if they fail to pacify the party activists
C. You opt for a meeting
with the activists and make them realise the importance and sanctity of the
electoral system and request them to cooperate
D. You choose to ignore
the threats. However, you ask and acquire foolproof security from police force.
A. Make the tahsildar to
leave the office on the very day and initiate the legal action
B. Set up a redressal
cell and order the tahsildar to complete all the pending services on a set time
line
C. Call the tahsildar to
your office and make her clearly understand that she will not get one more
opportunity to improve
D. Such complaints are
quite natural and hence you neglect them
78. You are in a bank,
standing in line at the teller’s window. Suddenly, you get a strong burning
smell. You would:
A. Start shouting for
the manager, without leaving your place in the line, to bring the fire
extinguisher.
B. Ask the Teller to
close the counter immediately and carry all the currency to the vault
C. Ascertain the source
of the smell, approach the manager’s cabin and ask him to raise alarm
D. Call 108 and start
telling everyone to evacuate the building as soon as possible.
79. You are an IPS officer.
You have been asked to lead a team of Indian soldiers serving as part of the UN
Mission in an African country. During your tenure in that country, the
battalion that you are leading has just been relieved from active combat duties
after facing action for a month. The team has already suffered heavy casualties
and the soldiers are battle weary. On the way back to your base camp, your team
encounters a terrorist hideout, which may house a sizeable number of
terrorists. The terrorists have not yet noticed the presence of your team in
that area. You could just slip away from the area if you choose to ignore the
presence of the hideout. In this context, which of the following would be your
course of action?
A. Fighting terrorists
is the mandate of your mission. You have to engage and fight the terrorists
even if your battalion has been relieved of operational duties for now.
B. You should not risk
any further “Indian” lives in the name of fighting an unknown bunch of
terrorists in a distant African country. Since your battalion has earned its
rest, you do not have the right to drag them into hostilities with the
terrorists. Try to slip away without getting noticed by terrorists
C. You ask the soldiers
of your battalion. You decide whether to fight or not, depending on what the
majority of the soldiers want.
D. You just relay the
intelligence to the headquarters and wait for further orders from your superior
officers.
80. You are the manger in a
private firm. You had just returned today from a trip abroad on company related
work. Before you left, you had delegated some very important task to three of
your subordinates and had asked them to complete the task within a week. You
had divided the task equally among the three people. Subordinate A had
completed half of the task given to him and had sent you an email with the
details. However, upon checking, you see that most part of his work is ridden
with mistakes. You get the feeling that he has been careless with whatever he
has completed. Subordinate B did not finish the task, however he had called you
a day before to inform you that he could not work on the task given.
Subordinate C has also not finished the task. Neither has he informed you. To
avoid the same issue recurring again, which of the following options would you
deem to be the best action against the erring employees?
A. Disciplinary action
of equal magnitude have to be initiated against all 3 subordinates, as none of
them has completed the tasks given to them.
B. Subordinate A has to
be given the least “punishment” followed by Subordinate B. Subordinate C has to
face the most severe disciplinary action
C. Careless work is more
despicable than not completing the task. Subordinate A has to face the most
severe disciplinary action.
D. Since all three have
not obeyed your direction to complete the task, you take responsibility for the
fiasco and decide not to delegate any work going forward.
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