Directions
Read
the following passages and answer the item that follows each passage. Your
answers to these items should be based on the passage only.
Passage – 1
During the nineteenth-century, occupational information
about women that was provided by the United States census—a population count
conducted each decade—became more detailed and precise in response to social
changes. Through 1840, simple enumeration by household mirrored a home-based
agricultural economy and hierarchical social order: the head of the household
(presumed male or absent) was specified by name, whereas other household
members were only indicated by the total number of persons counted in various
categories, including occupational categories. Like farms, most enterprises
were family-run, so that the census measured economic activity as an attribute
of the entire household, rather than of individuals.
The 1850 census, partly responding to antislavery and women's rights movements, initiated the collection of specific information about each individual in a household. Not until 1870 was occupational information analyzed by gender: the census superintendent reported 1.8 million women employed outside the home in "gainful and reputable occupations." In addition, he arbitrarily attributed to each family one woman "keeping house." Overlap between the two groups was not calculated until 1890, when the rapid entry of women into the paid labor force and social issues arising from industrialization were causing women's advocates and women statisticians to press for more thorough and accurate accounting of women's occupations and wages.
The 1850 census, partly responding to antislavery and women's rights movements, initiated the collection of specific information about each individual in a household. Not until 1870 was occupational information analyzed by gender: the census superintendent reported 1.8 million women employed outside the home in "gainful and reputable occupations." In addition, he arbitrarily attributed to each family one woman "keeping house." Overlap between the two groups was not calculated until 1890, when the rapid entry of women into the paid labor force and social issues arising from industrialization were causing women's advocates and women statisticians to press for more thorough and accurate accounting of women's occupations and wages.
1. Which of the following conveys the key message of the
passage?
A. Social Structure and slavery in United States
B. The occurrence of societal development and women’s rights
movements
C. The prominence of women in United States during
nineteenth century
D. Social issues and the after-effects of industrialization
in United States
2. What does the author wish to highlight when he talks
about census’ reports taken at various time periods?
A. The meaninglessness of the exercise as they failed to
include all family members
B. The biased nature of those who involved in the exercise
C. The reports’ failure to achieve the objective
D. None of these
3. Which of the following statements is / are valid
according to the information given in the passage?
I. Industrialization contributed to anti-slavery in United
States
II. The occupational information of women, though precise,
is not totally complete
A. I only B.
II only
C. Both I & II
D. Neither I nor II
Passage – 2
For thousands of years, people lived in the
countryside. They worked on farms or in villages, knew little of the world
beyond their immediate families and neighbours, and generally got by on their
own. Slowly, they began to congregate. It happened in Mesopotamia and Egypt,
later in Greece and Rome, and also in Europe and the Americas. More recently,
we’ve seen fast growth in Africa and, most spectacularly, in Asia. And then, by
2008, according to the United Nations, the number of people who inhabit the
world’s cities ticked into the majority, for the first time ever. In the 20th
century cities grew more than 10-fold, from 250 million people to 2.8 billion.
Two in three people born in the next 30 years will live in cities.
Many thinkers, from Thomas Jefferson to Frank Lloyd
Wright to President Gerald Ford, tended to think of cities as centres of
poverty, crime, pollution, congestion and poor health. In recent years, though,
the thinking has shifted along with the demographics. Many experts have come to
realize that people are better off when they live in a city. Even a city slum
has benefits that you won’t find on the farm or in the village. The move from
the country side leads to dramatic changes for many women. According to
sociologists, in the village, all there is for a woman to do is to obey her
husband and relatives, pound millet and sing. If she moves to town, she can get
a job, start a business and get education for her children.
Indeed, the city has come to look less like a source
of problems than as an opportunity to fix them. Investments in sanitation and
water have turned many cities in the developed world from places of disease and
pestilence into bastions of health. From the standpoint of the metropolis,
climate change also seems less intractable. Because city residents rely less on
cars and live in more compact dwellings than suburbanites, they tend to leave
smaller carbon footprints. The challenge is to extend the efficiency of the
urban centre to the wider conurbation, embracing the city centre, suburbs and
satellite towns. Although climate is bigger than any one fix, how we build our
cities, and how efficiently we live in them, is going to factor large in our
response.
The most hopeful impact of city life may be its effect on the mind. Humans are social animals; we draw stimulation from other minds close at hand. Plato and Socrates both lived in fifth-century B.C. Athens, a city-state. Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak grew up in a western U.S. conurbation that includes Silicon Valley. The young, agile minds at work on the next Big Thing are probably tweeting—they live, in a kind of digital meta city. Chances are, they are living in a physical city, too. Technology is reshaping city life and making it more intellectually productive, but it will not soon replace the easy interchange of ideas that comes from casual proximity, the cornerstone of city life.
The most hopeful impact of city life may be its effect on the mind. Humans are social animals; we draw stimulation from other minds close at hand. Plato and Socrates both lived in fifth-century B.C. Athens, a city-state. Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak grew up in a western U.S. conurbation that includes Silicon Valley. The young, agile minds at work on the next Big Thing are probably tweeting—they live, in a kind of digital meta city. Chances are, they are living in a physical city, too. Technology is reshaping city life and making it more intellectually productive, but it will not soon replace the easy interchange of ideas that comes from casual proximity, the cornerstone of city life.
4. Which of the following does the passage mention about
cities?
I. Cities have better sanitation and fewer diseases than
villages.
II. Cities leave lesser carbon footprints than suburbs and
villages.
III. Solving climate change will be greatly influenced by
the way we build and live in our cities.
A. Both I and II
B. Both II and III
C. Both I and III
D. All the three
5. Which of the following author’s statements is more
argumentative?
A. “Two in three
people born in the next 30 years will live in cities”.
B. “In the village, all there is for a woman to do is
to obey her husband and relatives, pound millet and sing”.
C. “Because city residents rely less on cars and live
in more compact dwellings than suburbanites, they tend to leave smaller carbon
footprints”.
D. “The most hopeful impact of city life may be its
effect on the mind”.
6. To tackle climate change, which of the following does the
author finds reliable?
A. Rebuilding our cities
B.Technological advancements
C. Our adaptability D.
All the above
7. Three Englishmen and three
Frenchmen work for the same company. Each of them knows a secret not known to
others. They need to exchange these
secrets over person-to-person phone calls so that eventually each person knows
all six secrets. None of the Frenchmen knows English, and only on Englishman
knows French. What is the minimum number of phone calls needed for the above
purpose?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 15
8. An intelligence
agency forms a code of
two distinct digits selected from 0, 1, 2, ... , 9 such that the first
digit of the code is non-zero. The code, handwritten on a slip, can however potentially create confusion, when
read upside down – for example, the code 91 may appear as 16. How many codes
are there for
which no such confusion can arise?
(a) 80 (b) 78 (c)
71 (d)
69
9. A band passes around all the
wheels so that they can all be turned by the driving wheel. When the driving
wheel turns in the direction shown, which way will the wheel B turn?
(a) Clockwise (b) Cannot move
(c) Anti-clockwise (d)
Either way
Direction 10
Given are the following three equations:
10. How many circles are equivalent to a square, as per the ratios in the three given equations?
(A) 
(C)
(D)
11. Read the following about
the grid given below
and answer.
The
cells in this grid contain the
digits 1 to 9 in random order.
Column A contains no
odd digits.
Cell C3 minus Cell C2 equals 4.
The sum of three digits in Row 1 is 17.
Number 7 is in Column B; its left hand
neighbour is not 4.
The digits of Column C add up to 14.
2 is not in the same horizontal row as
8; and 9 is not immediately
below 3.
Which cell holds the number 9?
(a) B1 (b) B3
(c) C2 (d) C1
12. Steel cylinders are made so that each one has a
large and small hole through the middle. In the drawing six cylinders have been
stacked on top of each other. To stop the cylinders from rolling on the smooth
floor they are
wedged by heavy blocks at each side of bottom row. If
the heavy blocks are removed what would be the position of the cylinder when they
stopped rolling?
Passage – 3
Beware of those who use the truth to deceive. When someone
tells you something that is true, but leaves out important information that
should be included, he can create a false impression.
For example, someone might say, “I just won a hundred dollars on the lottery. It was great. I took that dollar ticket back to the store and turned it in for one hundred dollars!”
This guy’s a winner, right? Maybe, maybe not. We then discover that he bought two hundred tickets, and only one was a winner. He’s really a big loser!
He didn’t say anything that was false, but he deliberately omitted important information. That’s called a half-truth. Half-truths are not technically lies, but they are just as dishonest.
Untrustworthy candidates in political campaigns often use this tactic. Let’s say that during Governor Smith’s last term, her state lost one million jobs and gained three million jobs. Then she seeks another term. One of her opponents runs an ad saying, “During Governor Smith’s term, the sate lost one million jobs!” That’s true. However an honest statement would have been, “During Governor Smith’s term, the state had a net gain of two million jobs.”
Advertisers will sometimes use half-truths. It’s against the law to make false claims so they try to mislead you with the truth. An ad might boast, “Nine out of ten doctors recommend Yucky Pills to cure nose pimples.” It fails to mention that they only asked ten doctors and nine of them work for the Yucky Corporation.
This kind of deception happens too often. It’s a sad fact of life: Lies are lies, and sometimes the truth can be a lie as well.
For example, someone might say, “I just won a hundred dollars on the lottery. It was great. I took that dollar ticket back to the store and turned it in for one hundred dollars!”
This guy’s a winner, right? Maybe, maybe not. We then discover that he bought two hundred tickets, and only one was a winner. He’s really a big loser!
He didn’t say anything that was false, but he deliberately omitted important information. That’s called a half-truth. Half-truths are not technically lies, but they are just as dishonest.
Untrustworthy candidates in political campaigns often use this tactic. Let’s say that during Governor Smith’s last term, her state lost one million jobs and gained three million jobs. Then she seeks another term. One of her opponents runs an ad saying, “During Governor Smith’s term, the sate lost one million jobs!” That’s true. However an honest statement would have been, “During Governor Smith’s term, the state had a net gain of two million jobs.”
Advertisers will sometimes use half-truths. It’s against the law to make false claims so they try to mislead you with the truth. An ad might boast, “Nine out of ten doctors recommend Yucky Pills to cure nose pimples.” It fails to mention that they only asked ten doctors and nine of them work for the Yucky Corporation.
This kind of deception happens too often. It’s a sad fact of life: Lies are lies, and sometimes the truth can be a lie as well.
13. Which of the following is the central idea of the
passage?
A. Whenever people tell the truth, they are really lying.
B. Every truth is partly a lie
C. The truth can be used in dishonest ways.
D. All truth are not always real
14. The author clearly wants people _________.
A. To think carefully about what they read and hear
B. Beware of politicians and their campaigns
C. Not to trust anyone
D. To seek evidence to the truth
15. According to the passage, who is most likely to lie?
A. Politicians B.
Advertisers
C. Doctors D.
A common man
Passage – 4
However, despite the beliefs of these 17-21 million
people, there is no evidence that accidents are more likely to happen on Friday
the 13th. On the contrary, some studies have shown there are actually fewer
accidents on Friday the 13th. A recent report completed by a Dutch insurance
company showed that there were fewer incidents of fires and theft on Fridays
that fell on the 13th than on any other Fridays in the same year. It is highly probable
that this reduction in accidents owes itself to the fear of Friday the 13th
itself. If people are more cautious on Friday the 13th, then there are likely
to be fewer accidents.
If, then, there is no significant evidence that Friday
the 13th is any more dangerous than any other day of the year, why do
friggatriskaidekaphobics remain convinced of its unluckiness? While the
historical or folk traditions discussed earlier may have something to do with
this belief, people may also use associational links to justify their
superstitions. If a friggatriskaidekaphobic loses his wallet on Tuesday the
21st, for example, he would probably not assign any meaning to the date on
which this event occurred. If the same individual lost his wallet on Friday the
13th, however, he might be likely to conclude that the inauspicious nature of
Friday the 13th was at fault.
16. This passage is most likely an excerpt from
A. the case study of a patient suffering from
friggatriskaidekaphobia
B. the introduction to an article about
friggatriskaidekaphobia
C. the conclusion of a longer work that analyzes
evidence about the superstition of Friday the 13th
D. a longer work proving that superstitions are
justified by real-world events
17. Based on information in the passage, it can be
inferred that an earlier section of this passage
I. featured a personal anecdote about why the author
no longer believes that Friday the 13th is unlucky
II. provided some explanations about why people might
fear Friday the 13th
III. introduced the term “friggatriskaidekaphobia”
A. l only B. II only
C. I and II only D.
II and III only
18. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if
true, would best support the author’s argument?
A. In ancient Egypt, the number 13 was actually
considered lucky by the pharaohs.
B. Major airlines report that there is no significant
drop in the number of passengers who fly on Friday the 13th.
C. Studies performed in the United Kingdom reveal that
significantly fewer people choose to drive their cars to work on Friday the
13th.
D. More traffic accidents occur on Fridays than on any
other day of the week.
19. According to the example presented in last
paragraph, which of the following logical fallacies is committed by the man who
loses his wallet and blames Friday the 13th?
A. Post hoc, characterized by the argument in which
two sequential events are said to be causally related, but this is not actually
the case; the arguer wrongly concludes that the earlier event cause the later.
That is, correlation isn’t the same thing as causation.
B. Appeal to probability, characterized by the
assumption that because an event could happen, it is inevitable that it will
happen.
C. Appeal to ignorance, characterized by the
supposition that, due to a lack of conclusive evidence, the conclusion of an
argument should be accepted.
D. Weak analogy, characterized by an argument that
relies on an analogy between two or more objects, ideas, or situations which
aren’t really alike in the relevant respects.
20. The drawing shows
a cross section
where the land meets the sea. The
section covered is 5 kilometers. On a hot day, in which direction, indicated by
four arrows, is the wind most likely to blow?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
21. What is the number of routs from P to Q?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c)
9 (d) 12
22. Where should the letter ‘W’ be
placed? 
(a)
Above (b) Below (c) Both (d) None of these
23. From the images below (1-7) find
3 odd ones out.
(a) 1,2,3 (b) 2,3,7 (c)
3, 7,4 (d) 4,1,6
24. A bank customer had Rs. 100 in
his account. He then made 6 withdrawals, totalling Rs. 100. He kept a record of
these withdrawals, and the balance remaining in the account, as follows:
So, why are the totals not exactly
right?
(a) There is a mistake in the total
of withdrawals
(b) There is a mistake in the total
of the balance
(c) The two totals need not to be
equal
(d) The bank has cheated the
customer
Passage – 5
A serious critic has to comprehend the particular content,
unique structure and special meaning of a work of art. And here she faces a
dilemma. The critic must recognize the artistic element of uniqueness that
requires subjective reaction; yet she must not be unduly prejudiced by such
reactions. Her likes and dislikes are less important than what the work itself
communicates, and her preferences may blind her to certain qualities of the
work and thereby prevent an adequate understanding of it. Hence, it is necessary
that a critic develop a sensibility informed by familiarity with the history of
art and aesthetic theory. On the other hand, it is insufficient to treat the
artwork solely historically, in relation to a fixed set of ideas or values. The
critic’s knowledge and training are, rather, a preparation of the cognitive and
emotional abilities needed for an adequate personal response to an artwork’s
own particular qualities.
25. According to the author, a serious art critic may avoid
being prejudiced by her subjective reactions if she
A. treats an artwork in relation to a fixed set of ideas and
values
B. brings to her observation the knowledge of art history
and aesthetic theory
C. allows more time for the observation of each artwork
D. takes into account the preferences of other art critics
26. The author implies that it is insufficient to treat a
work of art solely historically because
A. doing so would lead the critic into a dilemma
B. doing so can blind the critic to some of the artwork’s
unique qualities
C. doing so can insulate the critic from personally held
beliefs
D. subjective reactions can produce a biased response
27. The passage suggests that the author would be most
likely to agree with which of the following statements?
A. Art speaks to the passion as well as to the intellect.
B. Most works of art express unconscious wishes or desires
C. The best art is accessible to the greatest number of
people
D. The art produced in the last few decades is of inferior
quality
28. The author’s argument is developed primarily by the use
of
A. an attack on sentimentality
B. an example of successful art criticism
C. a critique of artists’ training
D. a warning against extremes in art criticism
Passage -6
The destructive process of mountaintop removal mining
(MTR) has caused permanent damage to Appalachia. Although the law requires that
mining companies restore the mountaintops after the mining has been completed,
the 1.5 million acres of mountains that have already been removed cannot be
re-grown, re-built, or replaced. The companies do secure the rock formations to
prevent erosion and landslides, but their efforts cannot recreate the
once-beautiful mountain landscape. Furthermore, while companies are usually
vigilant about securing the rock formations, they seem less interested in
restoring the native vegetation. MTR operations clear enormous tracts of
forest; some experts estimate that over 2000 square miles of forests in the
Appalachian region would have been razed by mining companies by 2012. Instead
of replanting the native trees and shrubs that have been cleared, many
companies opt to plant cheap, fast-growing, non-native plants, such as
Lespedeza cuneata, which is officially classified by the USDA as an invasive
weed.
Environmental hazards are not only created in
preparing a mountaintop for mining, they also continue once the coal has been
extracted. After the blast, the excess mountaintop—which miners refer to as
“overburden”—is usually dumped into nearby valleys or streams. The overburden
contains a variety of toxic substances, including explosive residue, silica,
and coal dust. These substances are filled with sulphur, lead, mercury, and
other chemicals. Over 700 miles of streams in Appalachia have been contaminated
by this dumping. Although the mining companies have built structures known as
“sludge dams” that are intended to contain the toxic runoff, these dams can
burst or leak, sending thousands of gallons of toxic chemicals into municipal
drinking water.
While the Endangered Species Act, the Clean Water Act,
and other environmental protection bills can theoretically be enforced to
protect Appalachia, local lawmakers have been reluctant to take action for fear
of upsetting those who believe that the jobs created by MTR are vital to the
community. However, instead of bringing jobs and prosperity to poor Appalachian
communities, MTR companies actually bring destruction and poverty. MTR does not
involve the amount of human labor required by traditional sub-surface mining.
Despite the fact that coal production has increased between 1950 and 2004, the
human labor force working in these mines has drastically decreased. In the
1950’s, there were approximately 130,000 people employed by the mining
companies; by 2004, that number had dwindled to 16,000. Moreover, while the
coal companies may make enormous profits from MTR, Appalachian communities
located near the mines suffer increased rates of kidney cancer, brain cancer,
lung cancer, chronic pulmonary disorders, hypertension, and vision problems. A
variety of studies published in top medical journals link these health problems
to the fact that the victims lived in close proximity to the mines.
29. Based on information in the passage, it can be
inferred that the author
A. used to be employed by an MTR company, but left because
he or she was frustrated with its environmental practices
B. is more concerned about the environment than he or
she is about human lives
C. believes that MTR companies care little for the
environment or for the Appalachian community
D. thinks that the United States should stop relying
on coal power as a source of energy
30. Which of the following statements from the passage
represents an opinion, as opposed to a fact?
A. “Although the mining companies have built
structures known as ‘sludge dams’ that are intended to contain the toxic
runoff, these dams can burst or leak, sending thousands of gallons of toxic
chemicals into municipal drinking water.”
B. “However, instead of bringing jobs and prosperity
to poor Appalachian communities, MTR companies actually bring destruction and
poverty.”
C. “The overburden contains a variety of toxic
substances, including explosive residue, silica, and coal dust.”
D. “MTR operations clear enormous tracts of forest;
some experts estimate that over 2000 square miles of forests in the Appalachian
region will have been razed by mining companies by 2012.”
31. Why does the author mention Lespedeza cuneata?
A. to argue that the MTR companies are more interested
in saving money than addressing the damage they have caused to the environment
B. to identify one type of plant that is likely to
flourish on the newly-blasted mountaintops
C. to justify the reasoning behind the MTR companies’
decision to plant a non-native species where the forests once were
D. to provide an example of the natural vegetation
that grew on the mountains before MTR companies cleared the forests
32. According to the passage, the way in which MTR
companies dispose of the overburden is hazardous because
I. the mining companies continue extracting coal from
the overburden, thus putting additional pressure on the environment
II. the sludge dams are not a failsafe containment
system
III. MTR companies often dump toxic waste directly
into the municipal water supply
A. l only B.
II only
C. I and II only D.
II and III only
Answer questions
33 to 35
based on the following information
The plan above shows an office block for six officers,
A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor
(as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the
corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their
offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does
not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but
on the same side.
33. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose
office is to his left?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
34. Whose office faces A’s office?
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
35. Who is/are F’s neighbour(s)?
(a) A only (b)
A and D (c) C only (d) B and C
Answer question
36 based on the following instructions:
Choose A, if the question can be answered by using
statement 1 alone but not by using 2 alone.
Choose B, if the question can be answered by using
statement 2 alone but not by using 1 alone.
Choose C, if the question can be answered by using
either statement alone.
Choose D, if the question can be answered by using
both the statements
together but not
by either statement.
36. Four friends, A, B, C and D got the top four ranks
in a competitive examination, but A did not get the first, B did not get the
second, C did not get the third, and D did not get the fourth rank. Who secured
which rank?
1. Neither A
nor D were among the first 2.
2. Neither B nor C was third or fourth.
Instructions for question 37 – 38
Seven People A, B, C, D, E, F, G are planning to enjoy
boating. There are only two boats, and the following conditions are to be kept
in mind.
(I) A will go
in the same boat in which E is to go.
(II) F cannot
go in the same boat in which C is,
unless D is also accompanying.
(III) Neither B nor C can be given the boat in which G
is.
(IV) The
maximum number of
persons in one
boat can be four only.
37. If F
and B are in one
boat, which of
the following statements is
true?
(1) G is in the other boat (2) D is in the other boat
(3) C is in the other boat
(4) E is with F and B in one boat
38. If E gets the
boat with F, which of the following is the complete and accurate list of the
people who must be sitting in other
boat?
(1) F and E (2)
G and A (3) D and A (4) C, D and B
39. Given that A, B, C, D and E each represents one of
the digits from 1 to 9 and that the following
Multiplication holds:
A B C D E
× 4
--------------
E D C B A
--------------
What digit does E represent?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Directions 40 -41
Each question has a main statement, followed by four
statements labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Choose the ordered pair of statements, where
first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically
consistent with the main statement.
40. I get cold feet whenever i see am examination
paper.
(1) I saw an examination paper
(2) I didnt see an examination paper
(3) I got cold feet
(4) I didnt get cold feet
(a) 31 (b) 24 (c) 42 (d) 23
41. I remember her every time I see her photograph
(1) I rembered her
(2) I saw her photograph
(3) I didnt see her photograph
(4) I didnt remember her
(a) 34 (b) 43 (c) 12 (d)
None of these
42. Find the tens
place of
171987 × 19843×2348
× 383 × 553
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c)
6 (d) 8
43. 2, 7, 22, 67, …. Find units and tens place of 1000th
term
(a) 67 (b) 76 (c)
20 (d) 70
44. If you take a marker & start from a corner on
a cube, what is the maximum number of edges you can trace across if you never
trace across the same edge twice, never remove the marker from the cube, &
never trace anywhere on the cube, except for the corners & edges?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
45. How many ways are there of arranging the sixteen black or white pieces
of a standard international chess set on the first two rows of the board?
Given that each pawn is identical and each rook, knight and bishop is identical to its pair.
Given that each pawn is identical and each rook, knight and bishop is identical to its pair.
(a) (16!) / (8! * 2! * 2! ) (b) (16!) / (8! *
2! * 2! * 2!)
(c) (16!) / (8! * 2!) (d) None of these
Passage – 7
Crystals are materials that have a special pattern of atoms and molecules.
Atoms and molecules are very small "building blocks" that are part of
every project. Although molecules are tiny, we can see them with a powerful microscope.
Many common substances form
crystals. Both salt and sugar form crystals. So do minerals. Minerals are
inorganic (non-living) chemical substances. They are neither animals nor
plants. Gold and silver are minerals. So too are coal, petroleum, and sand.
Most minerals are found in the ground, so we have to dig them up.
Crystals in minerals can produce
beautiful stones. The special pattern of atoms and molecules inside the stone
is reflected on the onside. Some of these stones are clear. Others have light
colors, such as green, blue, or purple. Some stones can be very small. These we
often wear in rings and other jewelry. Others can be very large. We use those
for decorations.
For centuries, people have believed
that crystals have special powers. Some people say that crystals can give us
energy and improve our health. In
ancient Egypt, kings wore crystal stones on their heads, which they believed
helped them rule wisely.
Native Americans used crystals to treat all kinds of diseases. In Asia, crystal
balls represented the heart of the dragon. A kind of crystal called jade
represented love. Archaeologists have found many crystal objects buried in
ancient graves.
Today, we still use crystals to
improve our health. We know that crystals store and conduct energy. We use one type of crystals inside watches,
computers, and radios. Some people believe that crystals can also store and
conduct the invisible energy around our bodies. They say this energy may make
us feel calmer and more relaxed. This
may or may not be true, but it is true that hospitals are using crystal-based
technology today. They use crystals in machines to help find and cure
illnesses.
We are still learning about crystals
and their many uses. Who knows? In the future, crystals might even help us
communicate with people from outer space.
46. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “materials” as
used in the first paragraph?
A. Things B. Objects
C.
substances D. stones
47. Why do some people think crystals have healing power?
A. Crystals were used by Native Americans
B. Crystals have a special pattern
of atoms and molecules
C. We use crystals in watches and
computers
D. Crystals conduct and store energy
48. Based on the information given, it can be inferred that
A.
Crystals might inflict diseases and deprive our energy
B. Crystals are not very useful
C. Crystals are important for
communication
D. Crystals do heal diseases and
improve our energy
49. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in
the bold highlighted sentence in the passage?
A. Ancient
Egyptian kings believed crystals could give them wisdom
B. Crystal stones helped kings in
Egypt to rule well
C. Wise kings wore crystal from
ancient Egypt on their heads
D. Crystal stones have been found in
the heads of some of the wisest ancient Egyptian kings
Passage – 8
The African American painter Jacob Lawrence has
frequently used the series format as a way to tell a story. As in narrative
series painted by such earlier masters as Giotto, Goya, Daumier, and Orozco,
the images on different panels in Lawrence’s series are designed with a
deliberate continuity of style and color. The strength of the series resides in
the way the panels reinforce and enhance each other visually and dramatically.
Lawrence differs from earlier series painters not in the narrative power of the
series, but in the kinds of subjects he chooses to dramatize. In choosing
topics for his series, Lawrence often takes inspiration from the stories his
community tells about its heritage. His series Harriet Tubman (1939-40), for example,
recounts the story of the escaped slave who helped liberate over 300 slaves
through the Underground Railroad. In this series and others, Lawrence provides
a prose caption for each painting, often written in a storytelling style
reminiscent of the African American oral tradition.
50. The author refers to Orozco in the course of
A. accounting for Lawrence’s choice of topics for his
series
B. explaining Lawrence’s frequent use of the series format
C. relating Lawrence’s works to a larger tradition of series painting
D. introducing a new method of interpreting, the works of African American artists
B. explaining Lawrence’s frequent use of the series format
C. relating Lawrence’s works to a larger tradition of series painting
D. introducing a new method of interpreting, the works of African American artists
51. The passage presents information about all of the
following topics EXCEPT
A. the types of subjects that Lawrence uses as the
bases of his series
B. the approximate number of panels that Lawrence uses in a series
C. relationships between panels within Lawrence’s series
D. the style in which Lawrence’s captions are written
B. the approximate number of panels that Lawrence uses in a series
C. relationships between panels within Lawrence’s series
D. the style in which Lawrence’s captions are written
52. The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. assess an accepted viewpoint about an artist’s
works
B. explain an apparent stylistic ambiguity contained in an artist’s works
C. propose an innovative way of analyzing a group of works by an artist
D. provide an overview of an artist’s use of a particular format
B. explain an apparent stylistic ambiguity contained in an artist’s works
C. propose an innovative way of analyzing a group of works by an artist
D. provide an overview of an artist’s use of a particular format
53. According
to the passage, Lawrence’s series differ most widely from those of some earlier
painters in which of the following aspects?
A. Source of his content depicted in the panels
B. Continuity of style among panels
C. Reinforcement of visual effect from panel to panel
D. Congruity of color among panels
B. Continuity of style among panels
C. Reinforcement of visual effect from panel to panel
D. Congruity of color among panels
54. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage about the African American oral tradition?
A. It provides a linguistic model for the way in which
the panels in Lawrence’s series are distinguished from one another.
B. Its stories have been used as the basis for many painting series, not merely those by Lawrence.
C. It is reflected in the captions of at least some of Lawrence’s series.
D. Its influence is found more in Lawrence’s series than in his other works.
B. Its stories have been used as the basis for many painting series, not merely those by Lawrence.
C. It is reflected in the captions of at least some of Lawrence’s series.
D. Its influence is found more in Lawrence’s series than in his other works.
55. 3 blocks are chosen randomly on a chessboard. What is the probability
that they are in the same diagonal?
(a) 1 / 372 (b) 1 / 472 (c) 1 / 572 (d) 1 / 672
56. What is the area of the triangle ABC with A(e,p) B(2e,3p) and C(3e,5p)?
Where p = PI (3.141592654)
Where p = PI (3.141592654)
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c)
2 (d) 0
Direction for Q.no 57
There are 70
employees working with BrainVista of which 30 are females. Also,
- 30 employees are married
- 24 employees are above 25 years of age
- 19 married employees are above 25 years, of which
7 are males
- 12 males are above 25 years of age
- 15 males are married.
57. How many unmarried females are there?
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) None of these
58. An
emergency vehicle travels 10 miles at a speed of 50 miles per hour.
How fast must the vehicle travel on the return trip if the round-trip travel time is to be 20 minutes?
How fast must the vehicle travel on the return trip if the round-trip travel time is to be 20 minutes?
(a) 100 (b) 60 (c) 75 (d) None of these
59. In a certain game, if 2
wixsomes are worth 3 changs, and 4 changs are worth 1 plut, then 6 plutes are
worth how many wixsomes?
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c)
18 (d) None of these
60. At the Party:
- There were 9 men and children.
- There were 2 more women than children.
- The number of different man-woman couples
possible was 24. Note that if there were 7 men and 5 women, then there
would have been 35 man-woman couples possible.
Also, of the three groups - men, women and children - at the party: - There were 4 of one group.
- There were 6 of one group.
- There were 8 of one group.
Exactly one of the above 6 statements is false.
Can you tell which one is false?
Can you tell which one is false?
(a) Statement (1) (b) Statement (2)
(c) Statement (4) (d) Statement (5)
61. Five people witnessed a thief leaving a house
that was locked. Each gave the
following description of the thief in
the court.
Witness 1:
He was short, thin, and old.
Witness 2:
He was tall, thin, and young.
Witness 3:
He was short, stout, and young.
Witness 4:
He was tall, stout, and old.
Witness 5:
He was tall, stout, and young.
Which of the following descriptions of the thief is
probably correct?
(1) Tall,
stout, and old
(2) Short, thin, and old
(3) Short, stout, and young
(4) Tall, stout, and young
Passage – 9
Studies of the factors governing reading development
in young children have achieved a remarkable degree of consensus over the past
two decades. This consensus concerns the causal role of phonological skills in
young children’s reading progress. Children who have good phonological skills,
or good phonological awareness, become good readers and good spellers. Children
with poor phonological skills progress more poorly. In particular, those who
have a specific phonological deficit are likely to be classified as dyslexic by
the time that they are 9 or 10 years old.
Phonological skills in young children can be measured at a number of different levels. The term phonological awareness is a global one, and refers to a deficit in recognizing smaller units of sound within spoken words. Developmental work has shown that this deficit can be at the level of syllables, of onsets and rimes, or of phonemes. For example, a 4-year old child might have difficulty in recognizing that a word like valentine has three syllables, suggesting the lack of syllabic awareness. A 5-year old child might have difficulty in recognizing that the odd word out in set of words fan, cat, hat, mat is fan. A 6-year old might have difficulty in recognizing that plea and pray begin with the same initial sound.
Phonological skills in young children can be measured at a number of different levels. The term phonological awareness is a global one, and refers to a deficit in recognizing smaller units of sound within spoken words. Developmental work has shown that this deficit can be at the level of syllables, of onsets and rimes, or of phonemes. For example, a 4-year old child might have difficulty in recognizing that a word like valentine has three syllables, suggesting the lack of syllabic awareness. A 5-year old child might have difficulty in recognizing that the odd word out in set of words fan, cat, hat, mat is fan. A 6-year old might have difficulty in recognizing that plea and pray begin with the same initial sound.
Until children can segment the onset
(or the rime), such phonemic judgments are difficult for them to make. In fact,
a recent survey of different developmental studies has shown that the different
levels of phonological awareness appear to emerge sequentially. The awareness
of syllables, onsets, and rimes appears to emerge at around the ages of 3 and
4, long before most children go to school. The awareness of phonemes, on the
other hand usually emerges at around the age of 5 or 6, when children have been
taught to read for about a year. An awareness of onsets and rimes thus appears
to be a precursor of reading, whereas an awareness of phonemes at very serial
position in a word only appears to develop as reading is taught.
62. What is the purpose of the
writer behind writing this passage?
A. To analyze the phonological awareness and its levels in children that can affect their reading process.
B. To introspect deep into the psychology of a child and find out the capabilities of 3 to 6 year olds.
C. To trace the skills of a child to recognize different words of a language.
D. To compare the development of reading skills amongst children in good and poor readers.
63. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. A child’s ability of reading is independent of his phonological skills.
B. Syllables, onsets, rimes and phonemes are the smaller components of sound from which words are formed.
C. The development of phonological awareness is independent of factors like age.
D. Phonological awareness adds to the ability of clear speech of a child.
A. To analyze the phonological awareness and its levels in children that can affect their reading process.
B. To introspect deep into the psychology of a child and find out the capabilities of 3 to 6 year olds.
C. To trace the skills of a child to recognize different words of a language.
D. To compare the development of reading skills amongst children in good and poor readers.
63. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. A child’s ability of reading is independent of his phonological skills.
B. Syllables, onsets, rimes and phonemes are the smaller components of sound from which words are formed.
C. The development of phonological awareness is independent of factors like age.
D. Phonological awareness adds to the ability of clear speech of a child.
64. What is meant by phonological
awareness?
A. The deficit of recognizing units into which a word is divided, containing a vowel sound and usually one or more consonants.
B. The deficit of recognizing the terminal sounds of words.
C. The deficit of recognizing initial sounds of words.
D. All of the above.
65. If the scope of the second paragraph be extended to the following set of words - nut, hut, cut, sun, which of the following statements would be valid?
A. 4-5 year olds can recognize the odd one out.
B. All the words share the same rime.
C. 4-5 year olds find it difficult to recognize the odd one out
A. The deficit of recognizing units into which a word is divided, containing a vowel sound and usually one or more consonants.
B. The deficit of recognizing the terminal sounds of words.
C. The deficit of recognizing initial sounds of words.
D. All of the above.
65. If the scope of the second paragraph be extended to the following set of words - nut, hut, cut, sun, which of the following statements would be valid?
A. 4-5 year olds can recognize the odd one out.
B. All the words share the same rime.
C. 4-5 year olds find it difficult to recognize the odd one out
D. Children who
can recognize the odd one out become good readers and can gain mastery over
spellings.
Passage – 10
Passage – 10
Maddy loves to jump rope, ride her scooter, and ride her
skateboard. One day, Maddy gets a hole in the shoes she likes best while riding
her scooter. They are pink with hearts and a Velcro tab. Now she needs new
shoes.
Maddy's mom takes her to the department store on Saturday
morning. The store is filled with people looking for shirts, dresses, pants,
and toys. Maddy's mom takes her to the shoe area. The shoe area is crowded, and
there is a long wait. Maddy does not mind. Maddy sees a pair of purple sneakers
with orange laces. She sees a pair of red sandals with dots. She sees a pair of
green flip -flops. She wants the purple sneakers. "But you do not know how
to tie your laces," says Maddy's mom.
"I will learn," says Maddy. Maddy's mother thinks.
She does not want to tie Maddy's laces each morning before school. "If we
buy the purple sneakers, you must learn to tie them before you can wear them to
school," says Maddy's mom. "I will! I promise!" says Maddy. She
is very happy.
Maddy practices tying her laces for the rest of the day. She
practices more on Sunday. Finally, she learns how to tie her laces. She gets to
wear her new shoes to school on Monday. "I did it," she says with a
big smile.
66. Why does Maddy need new shoes?
A. Her shoes are too small.
B. Her shoes are very old.
C. She lost her favorite shoes.
D. She got a hole in her shoes.
67. How does Maddy get a hole in her shoes?
A. riding her skateboard B.
riding her scooter
C. jumping rope D. playing basketball
68. Which shoes does Maddy want to buy?
A. the pink shoes with hearts
B. the purple sneakers
C. the green flip- flops
D. the red sandals with dots
Direction for Q.69
Silu and Meenu were walking on the road.
Silu said, "I weigh 51 Kgs. How much do you weigh?"
Meenu replied that she wouldn't reveal her weight directly as she is overweight. But she said, "I weigh 29 Kgs plus half of my weight."
69. How much does Meenu weigh?
Silu said, "I weigh 51 Kgs. How much do you weigh?"
Meenu replied that she wouldn't reveal her weight directly as she is overweight. But she said, "I weigh 29 Kgs plus half of my weight."
69. How much does Meenu weigh?
(a) 43.5 (b)
58 (c) 44 (d) None of these
70. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4
bullets the total number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after
division. Find the original number divided.
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 21 (d)
24
71. In a sports contest there were m medals awarded on n successive days (n
> 1).
- On the first day 1 medal and 1/7 of the remaining m - 1 medals were
awarded.
- On the second day 2 medals and 1/7 of the now remaining medals was
awarded; and so on.
- On the nth and last day, the remaining n medals were
awarded.
How
many medals were awarded altogether?
(a) 36 (b) 50 (c) 64 (d)
43
72. How many
minutes before 12 noon is it when it is 27 minutes past 10 am?
(a) 30 (b) 93 (c) 49 (d)
94
Directions for the
following 8(eight) items:
Given below are
eight items. Each item describes a
suituation and is
followed by four possible responses. Indicate response you find the most appropriate.
Choose only one response for each item.
The responses will
be evaluated based on the level of
appropriateness for
the given situation.
Please attempt all
the items. There is no penalty for
wrong answers for
these eight items
73. Decongestion of
Metro and Mega cities can be achieved through
a. Improving the
state capital with excellent infrastructure like world class airports, roads
etc.,
b. Developing rural
areas in such a way as to prevent urban migration and also that people living
in metro should return to the villages
c. Development of
satellite townships linked through fast transport corridor
d. Widening the
roads, introducing Metro rail intensively and constructing high rise buildings.
74. You are asked
to occupy the place of your colleague who is not available on the day and use
his computer. While doing so, you realize that he has file that lists of all
the errors and misgivings that you had committed in the due course of execution
of the recent project of which both were team members. What would you do at
this juncture?
a. Delete all the
data in his system and secure yourself
b. Make a copy of
the data so that you can counter it at a later point of time
c. Make a similar
list for your colleague’s errors
d. Ignore and
proceed with the work
75. A train
carrying more than 30 propane tankers derailed and begun to burn. Upon arriving
at the scene and conducting preliminary study, the incident commander ordered
an immediate evacuation of the local residents. As the order for evacuation was
ad hoc, people rushed to safety leaving their belongings. Electricity was
turned off to the area. After 6 hours, the incident commander in consultation
with other experts and personnel determined to continue evacuation until the
fire burned out. What are the ethical issues involved in this scenario?
1. Did the incident
commander do the right thing by ordering an immediate evacuation?
2. Should he have
taken some more time in gathering information before issuing the order?
3. Should the
people concerned be informed about how long they will be out of their homes?
4. Given the
current level of risk, can the incident commander allow them to retrieve their
belongings?
A. 1,2,3,4 B.
1,2
C. 1,2,4 D. 1, 3,4
76. Your airline
company is experiencing a bad phase and the business prospects have been
declining continuously for the second quarter. Added to these woes, your
employees deprived of salary and other benefits are into a week-long strike.
Thus an internal problem of your company has attracted huge media attention and
you feel that this might lead to a negative publicity about the company. What
would you do in order to handle the possible fall-outs of this media coverage?
A. You invite the
reporters of each media firm for a dinner and appeal to them to project a
better image of the company
B. You shut down
all possible channels of interaction with media and warn them that you would
sue them for damaging your brand image
C. You agree to
give in to the demands of your employees provided if they end the strike immediately
and thus protect your company from media’s criticism
D. You ignore the
media as you are very sure that the media will shift their attention to some
other important news shortly
77. An organization
which has evolved over a period of time has crossed its “Infancy” &
“Growth” stages and can now be termed as in the “Mature” stage. The achievement
is chiefly due to the role played by the CEO. But for his strenuous efforts,
the company would not have sailed across all its existential difficulties successfully.
Which among the following can be considered the predominant role that the CEO
is supposed to play in the current stage?
A. He should
continue with the same strategies and ensure the company to remain stable to
any possible challenges
B. He should develop
a strong supportive team and chalk out the expansion plans
C. He should
personally take care of efficient and economic management with more emphasis on
cost control, planning and use of personnel policies
D. He should
capitalize on the feel-good factor and try to improve productivity, while
reducing staff requirements and thereby increasing the revenues
78. A National Sanctuary is being presented with two extinct species. The
Chief Minister of the state is about to honour this occasion. As a Deputy Collector,
you decide to visit the sanctuary ahead of a week and ensure the conditions of
the park and arrangements are worth the visit of CM. To your dismay, you have
found that the chief officer is on sick leave for a while and none of the
officials is serious about the importance of the occasion. Further, the
sanitary conditions are absolutely pathetic.
Which will be the most suitable course of
action under these circumstances?
A. Reprimand the chief officer for his
negligence and recommend your higher authorities to suspend him
B. Call off the CM’s visit and report the
reasons to his office
C. You personally assume charge, keep aside
your other assignments and give the arrangements of this occasion a top
priority
D. You cancel the sick leave of the chief
officer, ask him to meet you with his team in your office and supervise the
entire proceedings
79. You receive a complaint that a school
headmaster of a higher secondary school swindles most of the government funds
meant for developmental projects. On enquiry, you find that the offender is
notorious and has been transferred at least six times for such similar
offences. You also learn that the offender is a close relative of a minister
and enjoys strong political support. As the Chief Education Officer, how will
you respond to the complaint?
A. Inform the CM of the close nexus between
the minister and the offender and persuade the CM to initiate disciplinary
action against the minister. In your opinion, this will deter the atrocity of
the offender
B. On close examination, you have understood
that the offender is an excellent administrator and an achiever in bringing
good results to the school. As you think these strengths are vital for a HM,
you ignore his faults as you are sure that he cannot escape the scrutiny of the
auditing process and thus he will be punished
C. You infer from his tainted career history
that the legal system is powerless before his influence and hence decide to
forward the case to your senior level
D. After a formal meeting, you depute an
official from your office to supervise the developmental activities while not
interfering with the duties and power of the HM.
80. A police patrol has busted a
drug-trafficking gang in the vicinity of your city. Eventually, all of them are
taken into custody. One among the gang happens to be your friend during college
days and has helped you a lot during financial distress those days.
Anticipating advantage, he has mentioned your acquaintance and consequently you
are summoned to report at police station.
As a Deputy Collector, how will you respond to this situation?
A. Acknowledge the fact and lend all possible
help to salvage the culprit
B. Shocked and perturbed, you invoke the
defamation case on the convict
C. Report to the investigating team. Admit the
fact and make it very clear to everyone that you uphold the law above anything
else
D. On pretext of emergency, you abstain and
substitute your subordinate to solve the problem amicably
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